Father John,
I might have asked this question before, but it concerns me most.
I read that those who recite the rosary devoutly, on their knees, receive the indulgences only if they are free from mortal sin. Does that mean that if we are with mortal sin we cannot receive the indulgences attached, i.e., praying for the holy souls in purgatory.
So if we are with mortal sin we cannot receive the indulgences attached for i.e, praying for the holy souls in purgatory? And is that also true if we are praying other prayers, such as the Divine Mercy Chaplet.
Thanks,
Jean
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Dear Jean,
Let me start at the end and work back to the beginning. If you have a prayer book or a Missal, you will see at the end of many individual prayers and "sets" of prayers, such as the Rosary or the Divine Mercy Chaplet, a notation such as "100 days Indulgence" or "Plenary Indulgence". Perhaps later we might deal with the difference between plenary and partial indulgences, but let's stay with the question you asked, Jean.
If we say an indulgenced prayer or set of prayers, but are not in the state of grace, we do not receive the indulgences until we made a good confession and receive absolution. You might say the indulgences are "placed in escrow" until the account has been freed up. On the other hand, with regard to prayers said for the Souls in Purgatory or for other living persons, I believe that grace will be granted immediately for those intentions, since God is eternally present. And, it well may be that the grace of getting to confession might well be gained by saying the Rosary, as well.
So, say the Rosary and the Chaplet, try to avoid sin, both mortal and venial, and pray for the souls in purgatory, since they in return will pray for you, and you might get the better part of the bargain.
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2 comments:
Dear Father.
Is the Sacrament of Reconcilation invalid if any mortal sins are confessed in kind only, and not in number?
I was baptised a Catholic at birth, but it was not until a few years ago when I turned 20 that I started to take my faith seriously.
I had a general confession with my parish priest many years ago where I mentioned twenty years of mortal and venial sins, but I did not state my mortal sins in number; only in kind. My priest granted absolution.
In the several years since then, I have celebrated the Sacrament of Reconcilation regularly, although I have not confessed my mortal sins in number; only in kind, even though in the back of my mind I realised that I really should have.
The last time I attended the Sacrament of Reconcilation I made sure to confess my mortal sins in both number and kind, and I intend to do this from now on.
My question is, does the fact that I have stated my mortal sins only in kind mean the countless previous confessions over the last five years been invalid since I have confessed mortal sins only in kind?
Does this mean I have been receiving Holy Communion in a state of mortal sin for five years and my countless confessions (including my general confession) over the last five years have been invalid?
Thank you Father.
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